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jhonyy9
 4 years ago
 if p=2n+1 ,where p>2,p is prim, than p1=2n and n=(p1)/2
 so for n=k than k=(p1)/2 so 2k=p1 so
2k=(2n+1)1 so 2k=2n /divide both sides by 2
so k=n
 from this result that for every natural numbers
n>=1 exist one p prim such that n=(p1)/2
true or false ?
jhonyy9
 4 years ago
 if p=2n+1 ,where p>2,p is prim, than p1=2n and n=(p1)/2  so for n=k than k=(p1)/2 so 2k=p1 so 2k=(2n+1)1 so 2k=2n /divide both sides by 2 so k=n  from this result that for every natural numbers n>=1 exist one p prim such that n=(p1)/2 true or false ?

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Mr.Math
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1False. Take \(n=4\) for example, that would give \(p=9\) which is not a prime.
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