Just something to work on,
Prove \( \large \sum \limits_{k=1}^{n} k\times k! = (n+1)! -1 \) without using induction.

Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)

I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!

easy :)...use the same 'trick' I did for the last problem

k=(k+1)-1

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

## More answers

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.