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anonymous
 4 years ago
if f:A>B be a function and codomain=range then the function is onto?
anonymous
 4 years ago
if f:A>B be a function and codomain=range then the function is onto?

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anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Yes, range (f)=codomain (f) implies surjection.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0range is set of all b in codomain such that there is an a in A with \[f(a)=b\] if that is equal to the codomain, then it means function is onto (surjective)

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0what sat said, in other words every element \(b \in B\) is the fimage of some element of A.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0NOTE: If codomain (f) \(\neq\) range (f) \( \implies\) Into function.

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@satellite and foolformath please help if u can. Similar matrices represent the same linear transformation. please prove it or send me a link of its prove its urgent....

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0or look at "change of basis" here
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