anonymous
  • anonymous
Show that every point on the curve y=b sin (x/a), where the curve meets the axes of x, is a point of inflextion. Do i have to plainly show that x=0 is a POI or its asking for something else?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
Hey! We 've verified this expert answer for you, click below to unlock the details :)
SOLVED
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
amistre64
  • amistre64
inflection tends to be a found by a second derivative; and tested for cavage
anonymous
  • anonymous
yeah i know that, but the language isnt very clear up there.
amistre64
  • amistre64
looks like: -b sin(x/a)/a^2 is the second derivative to me

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
yeah
amistre64
  • amistre64
since b=0 is trivial; it looks to be what x/a = any mutiple of pi
anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry didnt get that.
amistre64
  • amistre64
how to "show" it? i aint got a clue
amistre64
  • amistre64
sin(n*pi) = 0 so when x/a = n*pi we are at zero
anonymous
  • anonymous
yeah thats where i came, so is that the answer fianlly, x=0
amistre64
  • amistre64
x = a n*pi would seem to be the answer to me; but since n is an arbitrary integer then a*n would have to be an interger as well.
amistre64
  • amistre64
other than that; I got no idea what the "answer" might entail ....
anonymous
  • anonymous
umm, it says, where the curve meets the axes of x, so y=0 at that point, this only gives x=0.
phi
  • phi
inflection point is where the second derivative changes sign. we know that y=b sin (x/a) crosses the x-axis when x/a is some multiple of 2pi the 2nd derivative at these same points is -b sin(x/a)/a^2 = 0 also, if we go a dx distance below x/a and a little distance dx above x/a, the 2nd derivative changes sign. So we are at an inflection point.
anonymous
  • anonymous
That seems clear, understood, thank you phi and amistre for your time :)
phi
  • phi
*crosses the x-axis when x/a is some multiple of pi

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.