At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.
inflection tends to be a found by a second derivative; and tested for cavage
yeah i know that, but the language isnt very clear up there.
looks like: -b sin(x/a)/a^2 is the second derivative to me
since b=0 is trivial; it looks to be what x/a = any mutiple of pi
sorry didnt get that.
how to "show" it? i aint got a clue
sin(n*pi) = 0 so when x/a = n*pi we are at zero
yeah thats where i came, so is that the answer fianlly, x=0
x = a n*pi would seem to be the answer to me; but since n is an arbitrary integer then a*n would have to be an interger as well.
other than that; I got no idea what the "answer" might entail ....
umm, it says, where the curve meets the axes of x, so y=0 at that point, this only gives x=0.
inflection point is where the second derivative changes sign. we know that y=b sin (x/a) crosses the x-axis when x/a is some multiple of 2pi the 2nd derivative at these same points is -b sin(x/a)/a^2 = 0 also, if we go a dx distance below x/a and a little distance dx above x/a, the 2nd derivative changes sign. So we are at an inflection point.
That seems clear, understood, thank you phi and amistre for your time :)
*crosses the x-axis when x/a is some multiple of pi