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1/((52)(51)(50))

1/32600

Sorry Thats not the answer

really?

Yeah !
The answer is 2/5525
But i need to know how these kind of problems are solved

of well the fact is your chance of the first card being a king is 1/52

the second card being a king would be 1/51

and the third card being an ace would be 1/50

how they came up with that answer i do not know

unless they are somehow figuring in that there are 4 of each

Oh Ok
there are 4kings So chance of the first card being a king is 4/52

and then 3/51

and ace will be 4/50

So multiply and its 2/5525

ah you got it...nvm

But Btw do you know Why we are multiplying ?

yes

Um Why ?

occur

like if you have 10 books and 2 are school books

whats the probability that the first book you pull out of your bag would be a school book

2/10=1/5

yes But we didnt multiply anything here ?

so say you have taken 1 school book out already

whats the chance of pulling both school book out of the bag in a row

well we already know the first one was 2/10

well that leaves 1/.9

so you multiply 2/10 x 1/9

the probability of pulling them both out in order would be 2/90 or 1/45

so out of every 90 times you try it, the probability of succedding is 2 times

OH Ohkay
Thanks a lot =)

we are multiplying because these are independent events.
\( P(A\cap B)=P(A) \times P(B) \)

yes