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Dumb_as_a_Duck

  • 2 years ago

Which is correct - 'No man in the town is taller than he' or 'No man is taller than him' ?

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  1. Vibhor16
    • 2 years ago
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    No man is taller than him

  2. Dumb_as_a_Duck
    • 2 years ago
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    oh. Which is what i thought too,, but my grammar guide says the opposite. (sometimes it's wrong too, so I'm not sure if it is correct or not).

  3. Vibhor16
    • 2 years ago
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    It can be "No man in the town is as tall as he is."

  4. FoolForMath
    • 2 years ago
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    'him' because it is object of the clause.

  5. Dumb_as_a_Duck
    • 2 years ago
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    oh. thanks!

  6. Redwood_Girl
    • 2 years ago
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    The sentence in its full form would be: No man is taller in town than he is. The final "is" is elided (omitted). The correct form is then: No man is taller in town than he. But of course almost no one speaks this way any more. That is why the other form sounds correct to you. It is the form you are accustomed to hearing.

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