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myininaya
Group Title
True/False?:
Let V and W be vector spaces. Let L:V>W be a linear map. If kerL=0, then L is a bijection.
 2 years ago
 2 years ago
myininaya Group Title
True/False?: Let V and W be vector spaces. Let L:V>W be a linear map. If kerL=0, then L is a bijection.
 2 years ago
 2 years ago

This Question is Closed

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
I think it is false but I need a counterexample to show me that. lol
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
So kerL=0 is the elements v in V such that L(v)=0
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
So we need to show that for some mapping L that L is not a bijection Remember a bijection has the following properties: A )x,y in V, L(x)=L(y) implies x=y (injective) B )if for every w in W there exists at least one v in V such that L(v)=w (surjective)
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
So we know that L is injective. So L fails the surjective part of the definition of bijective. Assume that ker(L) = 0. If L(v1) = L(v2), then linearity of L tells that L(v1  v2) = 0. Then ker(L) = 0 implies v1v2 = 0, which shows that v1=v2 as desired.
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
@jamesj @Zarkon I hope I don't bother you guys too much...I can't figure out such a function for my counterexample. You don't have to answer if you don't want to but of course you already knew that. lol
 2 years ago

JamesJ Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
If the kernel is nonzero the the dimensionality of the image of V, L(V) is equal to V. This tells us intuitively that the map is 1:1. To formalize it, we need two things, as you observe a) surjectivity b) injectivity a) is trivial, and notice that L(V) need NOT equal W Now using your argument above, you've shown the L is injective, i.e., 1:1, because if L(v1) = L(v2), then v1 = v2. Hence indeed L is a bijection.
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
So that is why I couldn't think of a function that fails the surjective part becacuse the statement was true. lol
 2 years ago

myininaya Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Thanks JamesJ.
 2 years ago

Zarkon Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Wouldn't we need to know the dimensions of V and W in order to determine if it was indeed surjective?
 2 years ago

JamesJ Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
I'm just saying it surjective onto its image and the sense of a function being a bijection being just one to one and onto. If the question is: is the map L a bijection *between V and W*, yes, then clearly we need that dim(V) = dim(W) in the finite case.
 2 years ago
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