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camelialawson
How do I Prove or disprove; For all x, y € R, if x is rational and y is irrational, then xy is irrational
\(x\) is rational, so \(x\) can be expressed as \(\frac{p}{q}\) Let us assume that \(x\times y\) is rational, then \(xy=\frac{m}{n}\implies y=\frac{mq}{np}\) . This shows that y is rational, which is a contradiction. So \(xy\) is irrational.
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