anonymous
  • anonymous
If 2(tan^2)a * tan^2(b) * tan^2 (y) + tan^2(a)* tan^2(b) + tan^2(b) * tan^2(y) + tan^2(y)*tan^2(a) = 1 Prove that sin^2(a) + sin^2(b) + sin^2(y) = 1 ******* Here a = alpha , b = beta , y = gama
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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katieb
  • katieb
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anonymous
  • anonymous
sin^2asin^2bsin^2c + sin^2asin^2bcos^c + sin^2csin^bcos^a + sin^2csin^2acos^b +sin^2asin^2bsin^2c=cos^2acos^2bcos^2c Try to take some terms common you will get something, then more of the manipulation. Just try it, this isn't a tough problem.
anonymous
  • anonymous
is it cos^c ?????????????
anonymous
  • anonymous
just express tan as cos/sin, then substitute cos^2 by 1-sin^2.. it is a lengthy problem, but easy..

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anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry, sin/cos ^^
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes ..

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