anonymous
  • anonymous
how do you integrate from 1 to -2? Shouldn't it be from -2 to 1?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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jamiebookeater
  • jamiebookeater
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slaaibak
  • slaaibak
With that argument, we can also ask why integrate from 1 to 2. We take the area from 0 to 2, then we subtract the area from 0-1, giving the area from 1-2.
anonymous
  • anonymous
okay, so i understand how do integrate when limits are in ascending order, but i don't get how to integrate when the limits are in descending order. would i just take the integral from -2 to 0 and then from 0 to 1?
Zarkon
  • Zarkon
\[\int\limits_{b}^{a}f(x)dx=-\int\limits_{a}^{b}f(x)dx\]

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anonymous
  • anonymous
Zarkon, so then is the area under f(x) negative or the area under f'(x)?

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