anonymous
  • anonymous
I've been asked to figure out why sin(x)/x=1 is false when it's not a limit... is it because the only time sin(x)=x is when x=0, and you can't divide by 0? or is there something more tricky?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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dumbcow
  • dumbcow
yes you are right it is only true when x=0 but sin(0)/0 is indeterminate so it has no value but we know the limit is 1
anonymous
  • anonymous
when its a limit you can use l'hopitals thereom which simplifies the expression to cos(x)=1 which solution is then x=0.
anonymous
  • anonymous
the limit = 1, but my professor wants to know why it doesn't equal 1 when it isn't a limit

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anonymous
  • anonymous
so, i'm on the right track?
anonymous
  • anonymous
this is because you cannot have sin(0)/0 in reality. but when its a limit you can see it tends to it. you cant divide by 0 in reality even though you know the answer. hard to see around i guess
anonymous
  • anonymous
but yeah you are
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks!

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