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easy question Let be a finite group and let be a prime dividing . Let denote the set of all -tuples of elements of whose product is 1. That is, . Now define a relation on as follows: if and only if is a cyclic permutation of . Prove that has elements, hence has order divisible by . Prove that a cyclic permutation of an element of is again in . Prove that is an equivalence relation. Prove that an equivalence class contains a single element if and only if it is of the form for some with . Prove that every equivalence class has order 1 or p. Deduce that , where is the number of classes of size 1 and is the number of classes of size . Noting that is a class of size 1, deduce that there exists a nonidentity element such that . We prove this equality by attempting to choose an arbitrary element of . Note that the first elements of an arbitrary tuple in may be chosen arbitrarily – with choices for each; a total of distinct choices. This having been done, the last entry is determined uniquely, namely . This exhausts all possible ways of choosing an element of , so that . Suppose , and let be a cyclic permutation. Then , so that . Thus the cyclic permutation is in . Every -tuple is trivially a cyclic permutation of itself, so that is reflexive. If is a cyclic permutation of , say by slots, then may be recovered by cyclically permuting times. If is the -th cyclic permutation of and the -th cyclic permutation of , then is the -th cyclic permutation of . Hence is an equivalence relation. Let be a equivalence class containing a single element, and let . Now the -th cyclic permutation of is again , so that for all such . Thus . Trivial. Suppose has exactly distinct cyclic permutations; note that . Now for each , we have , where indices are taken mod . More generally, for each and , with indices taken modulo . Suppose does not divide ; since is prime, then, . We saw previously that ranges over all residue classes of , so that for some . Otherwise, divides , so that (and ) or . Hence every is in a -equivalence class of size 1 or p. Counting elements of , then, we have where is the number of size 1 equivalence classes and the number of size equivalence classes. Since divides and , we have where is the number of size 1 equivalence classes. Hence , and there exists at least one size one equivalence class which is not trivial – i.e., has the form for some nonidentity . Thus there exists an element such that .
is cauchy's therom = cauchy schwarz inequality? Just curious about this