• anonymous
I was thinking... IF an object is accelerating, must the model for it's position be a cubic or one of greater degree? if it was any smaller than a degree of 3 than the second derivative would prove to = 0x... just need a yes this is true for all cases or no it isn't.
  • Stacey Warren - Expert
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  • katieb
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  • anonymous
Nope. At least not from a purely mathematical view. Not all derivatives will decrease to zero, what about 1/x (x^-1) ? or ln(x) or sin(x) or e^x etc. etc.

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