A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
2bornot2b
 2 years ago
If gcd(a,b)=1 then prove that gcd(ac,b)=gcd(c,b)
2bornot2b
 2 years ago
If gcd(a,b)=1 then prove that gcd(ac,b)=gcd(c,b)

This Question is Closed

FoolForMath
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3HINT: (a,b) = 1 means that there is some x and y such that ax + by = 1

satellite73
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1perhaps start by writing \(d=gcd(ac,b)\) and \(e=gcd(b,c)\) and then show that \(de\) and \(ed\)

FoolForMath
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3How about this: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20889/

satellite73
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes i guess that will do it. notice this fairly obvious fact actually takes a few lines to prove!

FoolForMath
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3Yes, sat, it's one of the many things of number theory which are just intuitively plausible.

2bornot2b
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0what do you mean @FoolForMath

FoolForMath
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3If you see Sivaram's answer, he has used the same fact I alluded to you :)
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.