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2bornot2b
 3 years ago
If gcd(a,b)=1 then prove that gcd(ac,b)=gcd(c,b)
2bornot2b
 3 years ago
If gcd(a,b)=1 then prove that gcd(ac,b)=gcd(c,b)

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FoolForMath
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3HINT: (a,b) = 1 means that there is some x and y such that ax + by = 1

satellite73
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1perhaps start by writing \(d=gcd(ac,b)\) and \(e=gcd(b,c)\) and then show that \(de\) and \(ed\)

FoolForMath
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3How about this: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20889/

satellite73
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1yes i guess that will do it. notice this fairly obvious fact actually takes a few lines to prove!

FoolForMath
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3Yes, sat, it's one of the many things of number theory which are just intuitively plausible.

2bornot2b
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0what do you mean @FoolForMath

FoolForMath
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3If you see Sivaram's answer, he has used the same fact I alluded to you :)
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