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FoolForMath Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3
HINT: (a,b) = 1 means that there is some x and y such that ax + by = 1
 2 years ago

satellite73 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
perhaps start by writing \(d=gcd(ac,b)\) and \(e=gcd(b,c)\) and then show that \(de\) and \(ed\)
 2 years ago

FoolForMath Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3
How about this: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20889/
 2 years ago

satellite73 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
yes i guess that will do it. notice this fairly obvious fact actually takes a few lines to prove!
 2 years ago

FoolForMath Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3
Yes, sat, it's one of the many things of number theory which are just intuitively plausible.
 2 years ago

2bornot2b Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
what do you mean @FoolForMath
 2 years ago

FoolForMath Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.3
If you see Sivaram's answer, he has used the same fact I alluded to you :)
 2 years ago
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