.Sam. Group Title Prove that where w = f (z) is analytic and one-to-one. 2 years ago 2 years ago

1. .Sam. Group Title

$\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial y^2}=|f'(z)|^2(\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial u^2}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial v^2})$

2. Kreshnik Group Title

wahh... I'm ready to faint !! LOL , I don't know :P

3. .Sam. Group Title

lol

4. agreene Group Title
5. .Sam. Group Title

@inkyvoyd

6. inkyvoyd Group Title

WTH! I'm just a 15 year old self studying calc two. I DON GET THOSE FUNNY PHI AND PARTIAL DERIVATIVE SIGNS! :(

7. inkyvoyd Group Title

That is, if that is even phi :S

8. .Sam. Group Title

I thought you know because you'd say ERF(), sorry

9. inkyvoyd Group Title

I only know what the erf is because I wanted to figure out the empirical rule by indefinite integration, and later I realized that to be impossible.

10. inkyvoyd Group Title

Cause wolfram alpha said so :)

11. .Sam. Group Title

ok

12. inkyvoyd Group Title

Good luck though, try reddit's r/cheatatmathhomework

13. inkyvoyd Group Title

They can do group theory there, i'm not sure why.