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.Sam.

  • 2 years ago

Prove that where w = f (z) is analytic and one-to-one.

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  1. .Sam.
    • 2 years ago
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    \[\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial y^2}=|f'(z)|^2(\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial u^2}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial v^2})\]

  2. Kreshnik
    • 2 years ago
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    wahh... I'm ready to faint !! LOL , I don't know :P

  3. .Sam.
    • 2 years ago
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    lol

  4. .Sam.
    • 2 years ago
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    @inkyvoyd

  5. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    WTH! I'm just a 15 year old self studying calc two. I DON GET THOSE FUNNY PHI AND PARTIAL DERIVATIVE SIGNS! :(

  6. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    That is, if that is even phi :S

  7. .Sam.
    • 2 years ago
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    I thought you know because you'd say ERF(), sorry

  8. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    I only know what the erf is because I wanted to figure out the empirical rule by indefinite integration, and later I realized that to be impossible.

  9. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    Cause wolfram alpha said so :)

  10. .Sam.
    • 2 years ago
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    ok

  11. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    Good luck though, try reddit's r/cheatatmathhomework

  12. inkyvoyd
    • 2 years ago
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    They can do group theory there, i'm not sure why.

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