## .Sam. 4 years ago Prove that where w = f (z) is analytic and one-to-one.

1. .Sam.

$\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial y^2}=|f'(z)|^2(\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial u^2}+\frac{\partial^2 \Phi}{\partial v^2})$

2. anonymous

wahh... I'm ready to faint !! LOL , I don't know :P

3. .Sam.

lol

4. agreene
5. .Sam.

@inkyvoyd

6. inkyvoyd

WTH! I'm just a 15 year old self studying calc two. I DON GET THOSE FUNNY PHI AND PARTIAL DERIVATIVE SIGNS! :(

7. inkyvoyd

That is, if that is even phi :S

8. .Sam.

I thought you know because you'd say ERF(), sorry

9. inkyvoyd

I only know what the erf is because I wanted to figure out the empirical rule by indefinite integration, and later I realized that to be impossible.

10. inkyvoyd

Cause wolfram alpha said so :)

11. .Sam.

ok

12. inkyvoyd

Good luck though, try reddit's r/cheatatmathhomework

13. inkyvoyd

They can do group theory there, i'm not sure why.