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Aadarsh

  • 4 years ago

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  1. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Prove that 1 = 2 , 0 = 1 and 1 = 2. I need clever answers.

  2. rebeccaskell94
    • 4 years ago
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    not this one again D: algbebraic expressions is my final answer

  3. rebeccaskell94
    • 4 years ago
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    algebraic*

  4. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    All are requested to try. This is a puzzle question.

  5. dpaInc
    • 4 years ago
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    O + 4 = 5. solve for ooh.

  6. Callisto
    • 4 years ago
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    x = 2x Cross out x -> 1=2 :S

  7. lgbasallote
    • 4 years ago
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    Let a= b Then a^2 = ab a^2 + a^2 = a^2 + ab 2a^2 = a^2 + ab 2a^2 - 2ab = a^2 + ab - 2ab 2a^2 - 2ab = a^2 - ab 2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab --------- ------- a^2 - ab a^2 - ab 2 = 1

  8. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    U can answer in so many ways. Try all.

  9. rebeccaskell94
    • 4 years ago
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    whoa...I'm keeping my bf

  10. Mathisnotfun
    • 4 years ago
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    x + x = 4x x(1+1) = 4x (1 + 1) = 4 2 = 4 1 = 2

  11. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @lgbasallote answer is thrilling. I was searching for ur answer, LGBA!!!!! Now proceed and u can solve that 1=0 and also 0 = 2.

  12. lgbasallote
    • 4 years ago
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    it's actually a fallacy lol =)) dividing 0 by 0 is illegal :p

  13. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    @Aadarsh: This is not a puzzle, this is wrong mathematics. Finding the error would be some fun though.

  14. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Everything is possible in maths, lgba.

  15. dpaInc
    • 4 years ago
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    dividing by 0 is a fantasy?

  16. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Its fun time guys and girls. Lets enjoy

  17. rebeccaskell94
    • 4 years ago
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    stuff just got real.

  18. gurvinder
    • 4 years ago
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    aad plzz aye koi question hai ..........

  19. Callisto
    • 4 years ago
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    @ffm true, we cannot cancel the variables like that :P

  20. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    let x=0 then 20x = 100x or x = 5x or 1 = 5 :P :p Okayy... proving is one thing. I ll ask you guys this: wherein here is the trouble. Which step did we make the mistake at, so we get such erratic answers that would cause Newton to suffer a heart attack if he ever saw this? ;)

  21. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @apoorvk smart reply. Newton would have given us gifts!!!!!

  22. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    oh yeah @foolformath already asked this. so where is the error, aadarsh can you think? (this question was presented in Bansal classes entrance test multiple times)

  23. lgbasallote
    • 4 years ago
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    @Callisto how do you tag @FoolForMath with ffm???

  24. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    like this @ffm

  25. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Really? Bansal people are copying from Brain Mapping Academy, Hyderabad.

  26. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    :D sorry for the troubles FFM

  27. lgbasallote
    • 4 years ago
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    i dont think @ffm is the same as @FoolForMath yes?

  28. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    I am not notified with @ffm

  29. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    may be, aadarsh. or the other way around. someone always copies from somebody

  30. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @Mani_Jha , @AravindG , @payalvsangle , @heena , @sheena101 , @gurvinder , @Ishaan94 , please try. I have to present this before my seniors and get cash prize.

  31. Callisto
    • 4 years ago
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    Hmmm... I was trying to show that I was responding his words, so .... it doesn't matter if I have really tagged him :P

  32. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    So, Aadarsh where is the trouble. try guessing!

  33. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @apoorvk bhai, there is no mistake. Mistake der in assumption.

  34. lgbasallote
    • 4 years ago
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    the fallacy works well

  35. Mani_Jha
    • 4 years ago
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    @As a general rule, you shouldn't multiply or divide an equation by zero.

  36. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    let x=0 then 20x = 100x or x = 5x or 1 = 5 (How are you cancelling x? This is division by zero)

  37. Mani_Jha
    • 4 years ago
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    (1−2)^2=(2−1)^2=1 1−2=2−1 2=4 1=2 Find out the mistake in this.

  38. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Mistake is in this: 1-2 = 2-1

  39. KingGeorge
    • 4 years ago
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    How about a proof that shows \(e=1\)? \[\Large e=e^{2\pi i \over 2\pi i}=(e^{2\pi i})^{1 \over 2 \pi i}=1^{1 \over 2 \pi i}=1\]

  40. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Hats off to @KingGeorge .

  41. Mani_Jha
    • 4 years ago
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    Haha. Good. I used a fallacy to prove another fallacy!

  42. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @King , @shruti , @neha2050 , @salini Please try.

  43. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    \(a^2 = b^2 \implies \pm a= \pm b \) So there are two solutions.

  44. Mani_Jha
    • 4 years ago
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    @KingGeorge, finding the value of anything to a complex power doesn't make sense. You can't be sure that: \[1^{1/2\pi i}=1\]

  45. KingGeorge
    • 4 years ago
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    An alternative proof I found online: Let \(2e=f\). Then \(2^{2 \pi i}e^{2 \pi i} =f^{2\pi i}\). Since \(e^{2\pi i}=1\), we know that \(2^{2\pi i}=f^{2\pi i}\). This means that \(2=f\). From that we substitute \(f\) back in, and get \[2e=2\]Thus, \(e=1\)

  46. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    @KingGeorge: When a number is raised to a complex power, the result is not precisely defined.

  47. FoolForMath
    • 4 years ago
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    See here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_fallacy.

  48. KingGeorge
    • 4 years ago
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    It's the basically the same deal for the second one. \(f^{2\pi i}\) can get really funky. \(2^{2\pi i}\) is already funky.

  49. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    exactly. there is a mistake as @ffm just showed. how do you think are you dividing by '0'??

  50. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Can we not try to prove that division by zero is indeed possible? At least by this, we can get the Abel Prize.

  51. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    Abel prize. lol

  52. apoorvk
    • 4 years ago
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    you 'll get special academic razzies for that!

  53. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Lets hope so!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

  54. KingGeorge
    • 4 years ago
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    @Mani_Jha The actual problem with my original proof is that \[\Large e^{{2 \pi i} \over {2 \pi i}} \neq (e^{2 \pi i})^{1 \over {2 \pi i}}\]Complex exponents don't do that.

  55. Mani_Jha
    • 4 years ago
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    @Aadarsh, You can't do that. That's why zero is called the 'hero' of Mathematics!

  56. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Oooooo! Really??

  57. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    @shruti , @PRINCEOFPERSIA please try.

  58. shruti
    • 4 years ago
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    tumne apne info mei ye sab kya likh dala hai?

  59. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Mera naam hai didi!!!!!! Yeh to maine dhamaal se copy kiya hai.!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

  60. shruti
    • 4 years ago
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    cool...yhi kaam kro aur ye kya qestn post kar rakha hai. i felt sumth imp. is there but is'nt

  61. PRINCEOFPERSIA
    • 4 years ago
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    Multiply zero on both sides. 1 x 0 = 2 x 0 0 = 0 1 = 2

  62. Aadarsh
    • 4 years ago
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    Smart answer, Prince Bhai.

  63. PRINCEOFPERSIA
    • 4 years ago
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    Thanks @ Aadarsh..

  64. experimentX
    • 4 years ago
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    1 = 1 1^0 = 2^0 = 3^0 = a^0 1 = 2 = 3 = a

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