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studyopen101
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When a number has an exponent of zero, why does it equal 1? Shouldn't it be 0?
 2 years ago
 2 years ago
studyopen101 Group Title
When a number has an exponent of zero, why does it equal 1? Shouldn't it be 0?
 2 years ago
 2 years ago

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kevinkeegan Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
anything to the power of 0 = 1
 2 years ago

integralsabiti Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
anything but 0.
 2 years ago

integralsabiti Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
\[0^0\neq0\]
 2 years ago

kevinkeegan Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
if all fails use the calculator
 2 years ago

studyopen101 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I know it equals 1, but I want to know why.
 2 years ago

BMann Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
no because the rule is 0 exponents always equal 1
 2 years ago

kevinkeegan Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
why do you want to know why
 2 years ago

studyopen101 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
math teacher told our class to find out
 2 years ago

m_charron2 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
I guess you can prove it by stating this : x^y = x^a * x^b (provided that y = a+b) If b = 0, x^b needs to =1, else you'd have x^a * 0 = 0 =/= x^y
 2 years ago

m_charron2 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
so by having x^0 = 1, x^a * 1 = x^a = x^(a+0) = x^y. Makes sense?
 2 years ago

studyopen101 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
can u plug in numbers to that as an example please?
 2 years ago

integralsabiti Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
consider a^1 ÷ a^1 = a / a = 1 but as per laws of indices, a / a = a^(1 – 1) = a^0 = 1 consider a^2 ÷ a^2 = a × a / a × a = 1 but as per laws of indices, a^2 / a^2 = a^(2 – 2) = a^0 = 1 or 5^3 ÷ 5^3 = 125 / 125 = 1 and 5^3 ÷ 5^3 = 5^(3 – 3) = 5^0 = 1 this shows that any number with exponent 0 is equal to 1
 2 years ago

m_charron2 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
ah, yes, I much prefer intedralsabiti's proof than mine, a lot simpler
 2 years ago

m_charron2 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
his proof also proves that 0^0 doesn't work because you'd need to divide 0 by 0. 0^2/0^2 is impossible, so 0^(22) also is, and finally, 0^0 is impossible as well.
 2 years ago

integralsabiti Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
i dont deserve that medal.take it back. It is copypaste
 2 years ago

m_charron2 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
bah, then it's a medal for googlesearching skills ;) whatever works really
 2 years ago

integralsabiti Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
thx :D
 2 years ago
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