Quantcast

A community for students. Sign up today!

Here's the question you clicked on:

55 members online
  • 0 replying
  • 0 viewing

mr.luna

  • 2 years ago

Probability of injury from car trip is 1in 50K (.00002). average trips a person will take in liftime is 16K. Whats the probability of being injury? can i get help to set this up por favor!

  • This Question is Closed
  1. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    poisson distribution for this one

  2. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    what is that?

  3. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    oh well if that is not clear, them maybe you are supposed to do it a different way

  4. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    im gona do a ratio of 16 to 50 and im gona in crease the numerator from taht resuilt

  5. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    multiply 16,000 by 0.00002 and get .32

  6. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    i got 3.125 to 16000, hope its right. hah

  7. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    no i don't think so

  8. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    oh wait. your right. your way makes more sense.

  9. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    this is a set up for poisson distribution, because the probabiliy is very small and the number of "experiments' miles driven is very large multiply them together and get .32 probability you have no accidents is \[e^{-.32}\]

  10. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    and so the probabilty you have at least one accident is \[1-e^{-.32}\]

  11. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    im trying to find prob of yes getting injured tho.

  12. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    yes, so compute the probability of no accidents, which is \[e^{-.32}\] so the probability of getting at least one accident is \[1-e^{-.32}\]

  13. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    dang bro, thats way ahead of me. but thansk anyways

  14. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    you could also compute \((99998)^{160000}\) and subtract that from 1

  15. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    that is the probability you do not get in an accident on one trip, to the power of the number of trips, and that will get the probability you get no accidents. subtract from one to get the probability that there is at least one accident

  16. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    OH!! so its 1 minus .32 or .68% .. i was thinking it was 32% which was confusing me.

  17. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    actually i think that is not right. let me check with a calculator

  18. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    this is what i thin it is http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%28.00002%29^16000

  19. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    almost identitcal to firt answer i wrote http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=1-e^%28-.32%29

  20. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    alrite cool. thanks dude.

  21. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 1

    yw

  22. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    The problem is an example of risk over time, which we discussed on Monday. You need to multiply the probability of one event by the total number of times it is likely to occur to calculate a life time risk. Your calculations below are for successive events not cumulative events.

  23. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    thats what the teacher said. i have no idea what the hell she is saying. lol

  24. mr.luna
    • 2 years ago
    Best Response
    You've already chosen the best response.
    Medals 0

    haha, its just 1 divided by 16000 dude. wtf were we doin? lol

  25. Not the answer you are looking for?
    Search for more explanations.

    • Attachments:

Ask your own question

Ask a Question
Find more explanations on OpenStudy

Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.

spraguer (Moderator)
5 → View Detailed Profile

is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...

23

  • Teamwork 19 Teammate
  • Problem Solving 19 Hero
  • You have blocked this person.
  • ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...

Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.

This is the testimonial you wrote.
You haven't written a testimonial for Owlfred.