AravindG
  • AravindG
does a=b always imply 1/a=1/b?
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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anonymous
  • anonymous
yes,
blockcolder
  • blockcolder
Except of course when a=b=0 but otherwise, yeah.
AravindG
  • AravindG
@badreferences , @apoorvk , @dumbcow , @dpaInc

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More answers

AravindG
  • AravindG
hmm...
blockcolder
  • blockcolder
If a=b, and they're not zero, you can divide both sides by ab to get 1/a=1/b.
AravindG
  • AravindG
@EarthCitizen , @Ishaan94 , @Mani_Jha
AravindG
  • AravindG
oh!! thats the answer i was looking for!!@blockcolder
AravindG
  • AravindG
@blockcolder
AravindG
  • AravindG
this seems a simple qn ..bt i had this doubt from my small classes
EarthCitizen
  • EarthCitizen
a=b, so long as a \[ a \neq0\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
It's been answered, but a more rigorous way of answering it would be:\[\left\{a=b\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
Whoops, I mean:\[\left\{a=b\therefore\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{b}\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
As either \(a,b\) can be \(0\), but not necessarily both, for the implication to be demonstrably false. A simpler way of showing this is by determining that the product must not be zero.

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