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does a=b always imply 1/a=1/b?

Mathematics
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yes,
Except of course when a=b=0 but otherwise, yeah.

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Other answers:

hmm...
If a=b, and they're not zero, you can divide both sides by ab to get 1/a=1/b.
oh!! thats the answer i was looking for!!@blockcolder
this seems a simple qn ..bt i had this doubt from my small classes
a=b, so long as a \[ a \neq0\]
It's been answered, but a more rigorous way of answering it would be:\[\left\{a=b\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]
Whoops, I mean:\[\left\{a=b\therefore\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{b}\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]
As either \(a,b\) can be \(0\), but not necessarily both, for the implication to be demonstrably false. A simpler way of showing this is by determining that the product must not be zero.

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