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AravindG Group Title

does a=b always imply 1/a=1/b?

  • 2 years ago
  • 2 years ago

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  1. AshleyyWhuddupp Group Title
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    yes,

    • 2 years ago
  2. blockcolder Group Title
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    Except of course when a=b=0 but otherwise, yeah.

    • 2 years ago
  3. AravindG Group Title
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    @badreferences , @apoorvk , @dumbcow , @dpaInc

    • 2 years ago
  4. AravindG Group Title
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    hmm...

    • 2 years ago
  5. blockcolder Group Title
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    If a=b, and they're not zero, you can divide both sides by ab to get 1/a=1/b.

    • 2 years ago
  6. AravindG Group Title
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    @EarthCitizen , @Ishaan94 , @Mani_Jha

    • 2 years ago
  7. AravindG Group Title
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    oh!! thats the answer i was looking for!!@blockcolder

    • 2 years ago
  8. AravindG Group Title
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    @blockcolder

    • 2 years ago
  9. AravindG Group Title
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    this seems a simple qn ..bt i had this doubt from my small classes

    • 2 years ago
  10. EarthCitizen Group Title
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    a=b, so long as a \[ a \neq0\]

    • 2 years ago
  11. badreferences Group Title
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    It's been answered, but a more rigorous way of answering it would be:\[\left\{a=b\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]

    • 2 years ago
  12. badreferences Group Title
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    Whoops, I mean:\[\left\{a=b\therefore\frac{1}{a}=\frac{1}{b}\mid\forall \left(ab\neq0\right)\right\}\]

    • 2 years ago
  13. badreferences Group Title
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    As either \(a,b\) can be \(0\), but not necessarily both, for the implication to be demonstrably false. A simpler way of showing this is by determining that the product must not be zero.

    • 2 years ago
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