anonymous
  • anonymous
nustian: why we call 1 is one and 2 is two?
Mathematics
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SOLVED
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chestercat
  • chestercat
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anonymous
  • anonymous
wen u boozed.............
anonymous
  • anonymous
what is your question? It is simply because it is how the english language was composed whenever the language came about..
anonymous
  • anonymous
reply to your own question please?

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anonymous
  • anonymous
no its not correct
thomas5267
  • thomas5267
Is this a joke or a serious question?
anonymous
  • anonymous
serious question having scientific reason behind it
anonymous
  • anonymous
it is really a good question
anonymous
  • anonymous
because of the angles |dw:1335857400085:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
thats it, u got it
anonymous
  • anonymous
lololol... explain four-infinityish. XD better restatement of question would have been nice
thomas5267
  • thomas5267
I write 1 like the lowercase "l" here so this argument is not valid for me...
anonymous
  • anonymous
we are not talking about u we are talking about the origin
thomas5267
  • thomas5267
Well, perhaps then we should extend the question to all digits of number, i.e. 0-9.
anonymous
  • anonymous
makes sense for 0 (lol) and for 3, if you write like a greek (double lol) and then you get to four.....
thomas5267
  • thomas5267
How should I write 4 like a Greek? Like this? |dw:1335940974111:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
that has 6 angles, and i was going more off of the greek letter for E for 3, which looks like |dw:1335941041618:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
for four there is a curve |dw:1335858254605:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
and as u know the angle is between two lines not a line and a curve
anonymous
  • anonymous
lol really this is sortof a waste of time based off of a play on words and some faulty logic. I don't really care that much... ;) so GOODNIGHT COMMUNITY!! :D:D:D:Dllololol
anonymous
  • anonymous
these number are Arab numbers and this explanation is not mine it is written in many math books
anonymous
  • anonymous
(once more) night bro!

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