• sasogeek
$$\large (a^2-b^2)$$ is proven to be equal to $$\large (a+b)(a-b)$$ (difference of two squares) . what then is $$\large (a^2+b^2)$$ and hence expand $$\large (a^3+b^3)$$ to the same form without the exponents. P.S. this is my own personal question. I need some understanding
Mathematics

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