A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
ajprincess
 3 years ago
plzzz help.
prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q
ajprincess
 3 years ago
plzzz help. prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q

This Question is Closed

JamesJ
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1First step: how do you write (p→q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol → ?

ajprincess
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0dw:1338105778405:dw

JamesJ
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~pvq or ~(p^~q), right So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.

JamesJ
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1(p→q)∧(r→q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q)  (*) and (pvr)→q = (~(pvr) v q)  (**) So you need now just to show the two righthand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.

ajprincess
 3 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.