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ajprincess
 2 years ago
plzzz help.
prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q
ajprincess
 2 years ago
plzzz help. prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q

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JamesJ
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1First step: how do you write (p→q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol → ?

ajprincess
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0dw:1338105778405:dw

JamesJ
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~pvq or ~(p^~q), right So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.

JamesJ
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1(p→q)∧(r→q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q)  (*) and (pvr)→q = (~(pvr) v q)  (**) So you need now just to show the two righthand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.

ajprincess
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)
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