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JamesJBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
First step: how do you write (p→q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol → ?
 one year ago

ajprincessBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
dw:1338105778405:dw
 one year ago

JamesJBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
~pvq or ~(p^~q), right So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.
 one year ago

JamesJBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
(p→q)∧(r→q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q)  (*) and (pvr)→q = (~(pvr) v q)  (**) So you need now just to show the two righthand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.
 one year ago

ajprincessBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)
 one year ago
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