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JamesJ
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Do you have this theorem? Let A(x) be a statement involving x. If ~x ^ A(x) is always false, then A(x) = x. If so, then notice ~p ^ p ^ (pvq) = FALSE, hence p ^ (pvq) = p. Another way is ....

JamesJ
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1p∧(pvq) = (p^p) v (p^q) = p v (p ^ q), because p^p = p = p , because if p is false then both p and p^q are false.

timo86m
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0pvq would have to be = 1

timo86m
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.01/vq=p ^ that is not a :P
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