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ajprincess
plzz help. How do I prove p∧(pvq)=p using laws of algebra of propositions
Do you have this theorem? Let A(x) be a statement involving x. If ~x ^ A(x) is always false, then A(x) = x. If so, then notice ~p ^ p ^ (pvq) = FALSE, hence p ^ (pvq) = p. Another way is ....
p∧(pvq) = (p^p) v (p^q) = p v (p ^ q), because p^p = p = p , because if p is false then both p and p^q are false.
pvq would have to be = 1
1/vq=p ^ that is not a :P