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QyronB

Two sound waves of equal amplitude interfere so that the compression of one wave falls on the rarefaction of the other.Which statement is true? A.No sound is heard. B.The loudness of the sound increases. C.There is no change in the sound. D.The pitch of the sound increased.

  • one year ago
  • one year ago

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  1. kritima
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    are the 2 sound waves travelling in opposite direction ?

    • one year ago
  2. QyronB
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    The question doesnt say

    • one year ago
  3. kritima
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    ok

    • one year ago
  4. QyronB
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    U know the answer?

    • one year ago
  5. kritima
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    i m searching and thinking !

    • one year ago
  6. QyronB
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    Ok

    • one year ago
  7. kritima
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    i think it's D

    • one year ago
  8. QyronB
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    Sure?

    • one year ago
  9. kritima
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    cause i think since the amplitude matches

    • one year ago
  10. kritima
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    it may have the effect of the resonance

    • one year ago
  11. QyronB
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    Ok D it is

    • one year ago
  12. kritima
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    is it ?

    • one year ago
  13. QyronB
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    It wasnt D

    • one year ago
  14. QyronB
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    What happens to sound waves after they are received by our ears?

    • one year ago
  15. kritima
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    well if it is like i said then i guess eardrum would brust :p

    • one year ago
  16. kritima
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    do u know answer ?

    • one year ago
  17. QyronB
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    Nope

    • one year ago
  18. agentx5
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    @kritima , first of all no frequency/pitch increase won't cause your eardrum to burst! lol no! High frequencies just out out of the range for human hearing (i.e.: dog whistle). What will rupture the eardrum is forceful pressure wave, such as that from an explosion; or a continuous wave that has VERY high decibels (another, logarithmic measure of amplitude)

    • one year ago
  19. agentx5
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    "Two sound waves of equal amplitude interfere so that the compression of one wave falls on the rarefaction of the other." + = compression - = rarefraction |dw:1342695820827:dw| This is known as destructive interference, and it's how the active noise canceling on Bose headphones that have it work! In the case of those headphones it takes the surrounding sound picked out outside the ear cup with a microphone and digitally adds that "noise with a 90\(^o\) phase shift delay to the audio signal coming into your speakers. The result is your background noise is very effectively removed (unless it's so extreme your speakers can't replicate it). @QyronB & @kritima , does this make sense now? If you don't believe me spend ~$300 to go buy those headphones and see for yourself! :-) http://www.bose.com/controller?url=/shop_online/headphones/noise_cancelling_headphones/index.jsp&perfsourceid=K9677&src=K9677&perfsourceid=K9677&src=K9677

    • one year ago
  20. MuH4hA
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    agentx5: First of all, inverting a wave like you drew it, is a phase shift of 180°, not 90. Second: What the... ? Would you please edit or delete you comment and stop advertising on openstudy? This is really not the place and I'd hate to have to report you for it.. thanks ;)

    • one year ago
  21. Vaidehi09
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    the answer should be A. the question clearly says that the compression of one falls on the rarefaction of the other. this is a case of destructive interference. imagine it as trying to pull and push an object at the same time. the effect of one negates the effect of the other. so there would be zero displacement. and well, a sound wave proceeds because of the displacement of the air columns. since there is no displacement, no sound reaches our ears => no sound is heard.

    • one year ago
  22. kritima
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    thanks agentx5 now i understood clearly !

    • one year ago
  23. flyguyjones
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    so what is the answer

    • 6 months ago
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