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abstracted Group Title

Fourier transform question: My professor has been using this equation for the fourier transform:\[F[f(\xi)]=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-i \xi x}dx\] But I have a book that claims this is the fourier transform: \[F[f(\xi)]=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-i \xi x}dx\] So........ what's with the 1/sqrt(2 pi)? For context, this is a PDE class.

  • 2 years ago
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  1. colorful Group Title
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    I see a confusion about the fourier transform for angular and ordinary frequency http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform#Functional_relationships

    • 2 years ago
  2. ash2326 Group Title
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    @abstracted both are correct, some books use \(2\pi\) with the fourier transform and some use it with inverse fourier transform. Important thing is to use \(2\pi\) only with one of them

    • 2 years ago
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spraguer (Moderator)
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is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...

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