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 2 years ago
For \(p>1\), integer \(p\) can only be prime iff\[\sum_{i=1}^{p1}i^{p1}\equiv1\pmod p\]Prove?
 2 years ago
For \(p>1\), integer \(p\) can only be prime iff\[\sum_{i=1}^{p1}i^{p1}\equiv1\pmod p\]Prove?

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badreferences
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Whoops, ahaha, fixed the TeX.

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Use fermat's little theorem. a^p = a which is equivalent to a^(p1) = 1 Now proceed with the summation.
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