badreferences
For \(p>1\), integer \(p\) can only be prime iff\[\sum_{i=1}^{p1}i^{p1}\equiv1\pmod p\]Prove?



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badreferences
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Whoops, ahaha, fixed the TeX.

mukushla
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experimentX
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shubhamsrg
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shubhamsrg
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lol..

mathmate
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Use fermat's little theorem.
a^p = a which is equivalent to
a^(p1) = 1
Now proceed with the summation.