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badreferences

  • 3 years ago

For \(p>1\), integer \(p\) can only be prime iff\[\sum_{i=1}^{p-1}i^{p-1}\equiv-1\pmod p\]Prove?

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  1. badreferences
    • 3 years ago
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    Whoops, ahaha, fixed the TeX.

  2. mukushla
    • 3 years ago
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    *

  3. experimentX
    • 3 years ago
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  4. shubhamsrg
    • 3 years ago
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  5. shubhamsrg
    • 3 years ago
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    lol..

  6. mathmate
    • 3 years ago
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    Use fermat's little theorem. a^p = a which is equivalent to a^(p-1) = 1 Now proceed with the summation.

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