anonymous 4 years ago For $$p>1$$, integer $$p$$ can only be prime iff$\sum_{i=1}^{p-1}i^{p-1}\equiv-1\pmod p$Prove?

1. anonymous

Whoops, ahaha, fixed the TeX.

2. anonymous

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3. experimentX

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4. shubhamsrg

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5. shubhamsrg

lol..

6. mathmate

Use fermat's little theorem. a^p = a which is equivalent to a^(p-1) = 1 Now proceed with the summation.