experimentX
  • experimentX
A Question from my past paper: Use Residue theorem to prove \[ \int_0^\infty {\sin x \over x} = {\pi \over 2}\]
Mathematics
  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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schrodinger
  • schrodinger
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346502102757:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346502203118:dw|
experimentX
  • experimentX
yep ... you are going in right direction.

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More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346502289911:dw|
experimentX
  • experimentX
Jordan's lemma :)
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346502491432:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346502593914:dw|
experimentX
  • experimentX
hold on ... how did you get this |dw:1346503249095:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346503481191:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1346503533199:dw|
experimentX
  • experimentX
what did you apply man?
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh sorry i was on another man
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[a_{-1}\]is residue at \(z=0\)
experimentX
  • experimentX
i mean how did you get that pi ... isn't it supposed to be 2pi?
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh..ok
anonymous
  • anonymous
if the tiny circle was full circle then it is 2pi but for semi-circle its pi
experimentX
  • experimentX
thanks man!!
anonymous
  • anonymous
see u santosh :)

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