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experimentX Group Title

A Question from my past paper: Use Residue theorem to prove \[ \int_0^\infty {\sin x \over x} = {\pi \over 2}\]

  • one year ago
  • one year ago

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  1. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346502102757:dw|

    • one year ago
  2. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346502203118:dw|

    • one year ago
  3. experimentX Group Title
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    yep ... you are going in right direction.

    • one year ago
  4. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346502289911:dw|

    • one year ago
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    Jordan's lemma :)

    • one year ago
  6. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346502491432:dw|

    • one year ago
  7. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346502593914:dw|

    • one year ago
  8. experimentX Group Title
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    hold on ... how did you get this |dw:1346503249095:dw|

    • one year ago
  9. mukushla Group Title
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    |dw:1346503481191:dw|

    • one year ago
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    |dw:1346503533199:dw|

    • one year ago
  11. experimentX Group Title
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    what did you apply man?

    • one year ago
  12. mukushla Group Title
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    oh sorry i was on another man

    • one year ago
  13. mukushla Group Title
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    \[a_{-1}\]is residue at \(z=0\)

    • one year ago
  14. experimentX Group Title
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    i mean how did you get that pi ... isn't it supposed to be 2pi?

    • one year ago
  15. mukushla Group Title
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    oh..ok

    • one year ago
  16. mukushla Group Title
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    if the tiny circle was full circle then it is 2pi but for semi-circle its pi

    • one year ago
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    thanks man!!

    • one year ago
  18. mukushla Group Title
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    see u santosh :)

    • one year ago
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