A community for students.
Here's the question you clicked on:
 0 viewing
liliy
 2 years ago
discrete math:(attached)
liliy
 2 years ago
discrete math:(attached)

This Question is Closed

josiahh
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0are you proving a tautology?

Joseph91
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0p bar means negation p?

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1It is not a tautology, use a>b <=> ~a or b and watch out for order of operations.

liliy
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@Joseph91 , yes @mathmate , it is given that it is tautology, and you must prove it with equilence

liliy
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0see... you just need to PROVE it, .. but my teacher doesnt want the table..

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1You're right, it is a tautology, I made a mistake in one of the terms. Still, start with the distributive property: ~a^(a or b) <=> ~a^a or ~a^b then use ~a and ~b <=> F and then ~a or b <=> b That leaves you with ~p^q > q and you'll get it after that using a>b <=> ~a or b

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1Do you want me to show all the work?

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~p^(p or q) >q ~p^p or ~p^q > q

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~p^(p or q) >q ~p^p or ~p^q > q (distributive property) ok so far?

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1~p^p = F, and F or anything is anything, so ~p^q > q ok so far @liliy ?

Joseph91
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0p implication q is equivalent to pvq [p^(pvq)]vq [p^pvp^q]vq [Fvp^q]vq [p^q]vq pvT=T

liliy
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0woah. wait.. let me digest that

mathmate
 2 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1So Joseph91 has completed the proof. The last step T is from ~q or q = T after substituting ~(~p^q) by p or ~q due to de morgan's theorem.
Ask your own question
Sign UpFind more explanations on OpenStudy
Your question is ready. Sign up for free to start getting answers.
spraguer
(Moderator)
5
→ View Detailed Profile
is replying to Can someone tell me what button the professor is hitting...
23
 Teamwork 19 Teammate
 Problem Solving 19 Hero
 Engagement 19 Mad Hatter
 You have blocked this person.
 ✔ You're a fan Checking fan status...
Thanks for being so helpful in mathematics. If you are getting quality help, make sure you spread the word about OpenStudy.