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jaersyn

  • 3 years ago

why does the integral of e^2x = (e^2x)/2?

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  1. chandhuru
    • 3 years ago
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    because of chain rule..

  2. jaersyn
    • 3 years ago
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    how's that go again?

  3. jaersyn
    • 3 years ago
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    e^2x >>> e^2x * d/dx of 2x? no

  4. chandhuru
    • 3 years ago
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    d/dx of 2x is 2 so how come e^2x >>>> 2 e^2x ??

  5. CliffSedge
    • 3 years ago
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    You have to divide by the derivative of the inside function for integration. You multiply by the derivative of the inside function for differentiation.

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