ParthKohli
  • ParthKohli
Why is \(0 \times 0 \) not \(\text{undefined}\)? How can we multiply nothing to nothing?
Mathematics
schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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ParthKohli
  • ParthKohli
\(0 \times 1\), on the other hand, can be calculated by adding 0 to itself once, which leaves 0. Same for all other \(0 \times n\) where \(n\) is not zero.
ParthKohli
  • ParthKohli
How can we add 0 to itself no number of times?
anonymous
  • anonymous
0=1-1 0*0=0*(1-1)=0-0=0

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anonymous
  • anonymous
zero is an approximation anyway.
ParthKohli
  • ParthKohli
There still can be mathematical fallacy in any proof, @apple-pi.

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