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ParthKohli

  • 2 years ago

Why is \(0 \times 0 \) not \(\text{undefined}\)? How can we multiply nothing to nothing?

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  1. ParthKohli
    • 2 years ago
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    \(0 \times 1\), on the other hand, can be calculated by adding 0 to itself once, which leaves 0. Same for all other \(0 \times n\) where \(n\) is not zero.

  2. ParthKohli
    • 2 years ago
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    How can we add 0 to itself no number of times?

  3. apple_pi
    • 2 years ago
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    0=1-1 0*0=0*(1-1)=0-0=0

  4. Algebraic!
    • 2 years ago
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    zero is an approximation anyway.

  5. ParthKohli
    • 2 years ago
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    There still can be mathematical fallacy in any proof, @apple-pi.

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