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ggabby

  • 2 years ago

how do i show algebraically that these are inverses of each other imma need to draw it....

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  1. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    |dw:1347944563922:dw|

  2. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    can u find f(g(x)) or g(f(x)) ?

  3. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    no

  4. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    ohh i can

  5. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    great :) so if f(g(x)) = 1 or g(f(x))=1 then f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other.

  6. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    u just need to prove this: f(g(x)) = 1

  7. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    ok i got it can we do a similar problem if u can make a prob lol

  8. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    ?

  9. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    sure, prove that f(x)=e^(2x) and g(x)=(ln x)/2 are inverse of each other.

  10. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    ok one second

  11. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    |dw:1347945047242:dw|

  12. ggabby
    • 2 years ago
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    now im stuck

  13. hartnn
    • 2 years ago
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    u know the logarithmic property \(\huge a^{log_ab}=b\) ?

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