General relativity and newton's third law
Well general relativity says gravity is due to warping of space time fabric.. then how does a small object put same force on the bigger object.. cause more warp means more force, and more mass means more warp.. which ultimately tells massive objects put more force.. so does it really violate newton's third law or is it that the theory says gravity s not a force at all.. its a pseudo force so we dont even have to talk about newton's third law??
Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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im inclined to think of gravity as a byproduct ... but thats just my uneducated hunch.
....not real sure what your premise is saying tho
How , may I ask, do you, gentlemen, discern between "real force' and "byproduct of" something.
In fact all forces are "byproducts" of gradients of potentials.
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Potentials are the Reality in quantum mechanics, forces not fundamental.
I don't get "violating Newton's 3rd law" thing.. Can you make it more clear?
well.. if you imagine sun and an asteroid far away.. but orbiting the sun.. well you see the force of gravity on the asteroid is due to the warped space in the orbit due to sun.. however if i consider what is the force on the sun due to the asteroid.. it would be due the warped space near the sun due to the asteroid.. now this warp would be so freaken small .. and therefore the force on the sun due to the asteroid would be very small?
check the attachment.. which shows warping of earth .. which would be more than that of the satellite.. hence force exerted on the earth by the satellite must be less
Einstein actually said that gravity is not a true force at all...it is fictitious as a force...
I don't think you can interpret the degree of warping as the size of the force exerted. More something like the amount of deviation from straight-line motion you can expect, and, of course, that would depend on the body's inertia as well as the size of force exerted on it.