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tough probability problem
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on c)
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why is it
(1+p)^(m-r)
instead of
(p)^(m-r)
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@zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?
bahrom7893
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@satellite73
anonymous
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whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra
anonymous
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the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is \(\frac{1-p}{2}\)
viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is
\[P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\] but in this case
\[p=\frac{1-p}{2}\] and therefore
\[1-p=1-\frac{1-p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}\]
anonymous
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i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first \(p\) a \(p^*\) or some other variable
Libniz
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I see, all those 'p' were confusing me
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thanks for your help
anonymous
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yw