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Libniz Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
why is it (1+p)^(mr) instead of (p)^(mr)
 one year ago

Libniz Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
@zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?
 one year ago

bahrom7893 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
@satellite73
 one year ago

satellite73 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra
 one year ago

satellite73 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is \(\frac{1p}{2}\) viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is \[P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1p)^{nk}\] but in this case \[p=\frac{1p}{2}\] and therefore \[1p=1\frac{1p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}\]
 one year ago

satellite73 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first \(p\) a \(p^*\) or some other variable
 one year ago

Libniz Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I see, all those 'p' were confusing me
 one year ago

Libniz Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
thanks for your help
 one year ago
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