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Libniz Group Title

tough probability problem

  • 2 years ago
  • 2 years ago

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  1. Libniz Group Title
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    • 2 years ago
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    on c)

    • 2 years ago
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  3. Libniz Group Title
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    why is it (1+p)^(m-r) instead of (p)^(m-r)

    • 2 years ago
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    @zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?

    • 2 years ago
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    @satellite73

    • 2 years ago
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    whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra

    • 2 years ago
  7. satellite73 Group Title
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    the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is \(\frac{1-p}{2}\) viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is \[P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\] but in this case \[p=\frac{1-p}{2}\] and therefore \[1-p=1-\frac{1-p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}\]

    • 2 years ago
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    i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first \(p\) a \(p^*\) or some other variable

    • 2 years ago
  9. Libniz Group Title
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    I see, all those 'p' were confusing me

    • 2 years ago
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    thanks for your help

    • 2 years ago
  11. satellite73 Group Title
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    yw

    • 2 years ago
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