Libniz 3 years ago tough probability problem

1. Libniz

2. Libniz

on c)

3. Libniz

why is it (1+p)^(m-r) instead of (p)^(m-r)

4. Libniz

@zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?

5. bahrom7893

@satellite73

6. anonymous

whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra

7. anonymous

the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is $$\frac{1-p}{2}$$ viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is $P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$ but in this case $p=\frac{1-p}{2}$ and therefore $1-p=1-\frac{1-p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}$

8. anonymous

i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first $$p$$ a $$p^*$$ or some other variable

9. Libniz

I see, all those 'p' were confusing me

10. Libniz