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Libniz

  • 2 years ago

tough probability problem

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  1. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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  2. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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    on c)

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  3. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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    why is it (1+p)^(m-r) instead of (p)^(m-r)

  4. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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    @zarkon, when you come on can you take a look?

  5. bahrom7893
    • 2 years ago
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    @satellite73

  6. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
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    whew i can explain that one (and not embarrass myself) because it is algebra

  7. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
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    the probability that you decide to buy a ticket and it loses is \(\frac{1-p}{2}\) viewing this as bernoulli trials (independent repeated experiments with only two outcome) the the formula is \[P(x=k)=\dbinom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\] but in this case \[p=\frac{1-p}{2}\] and therefore \[1-p=1-\frac{1-p}{2}=\frac{1+p}{2}\]

  8. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
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    i guess what i wrote is silly, i should have made the first \(p\) a \(p^*\) or some other variable

  9. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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    I see, all those 'p' were confusing me

  10. Libniz
    • 2 years ago
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    thanks for your help

  11. satellite73
    • 2 years ago
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    yw

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