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yeah i do pls

beacuse after applying the rule, i syill got inf/inf

so how do i apply it again?

after the 1st derivative, i got
e^x(1+x)/(2x+2)
then i plugged in inf and got inf/inf

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Yah you need to apply L'Hop from that spot again :)

yeah i now understand thanks alot :)

yay \c:/

hey so the answer will be?

infinity?

thats x approches 0 from the right

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1?

Yay \:D/

does this math change if the say x approaches 0 from the left??

0^-

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