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A 2/51
B 3/20
C 1/10
D 4/153

i still do not understand

but the answer isn't up there ^

what did you get for Urn 2?

1/4

so do i multipy 6/10 and 1/4

Sounds right to me.
So the probability of 2 blues is (6/10) * (1/4) = (6 / 40)

3/20

right :) I didn't see it at first, but once you simplify the fraction, it's there :)

thanks for the help

Glad to help :)