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kcla1996

  • 2 years ago

Two urns each contain green balls and blue balls. Urn I contains 4 green balls and 6 blue balls, and Urn II contains 6 green balls and 2 blue balls. A ball is drawn at random from each urn. What is the probability that both balls are blue?

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  1. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    The probability of drawing a blue ball from each urn is the probability of drawing a blue ball from the Urn 1 multiplied by the probability of drawing a blue ball from Urn 2.

  2. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    It is sort of like flipping 2 coins and asking for the chance of getting 2 heads. The chance of getting a head on Coin 1 is 1/2, and it's the same for Coin 2. The chance of getting heads on both coins is (1/2) * (1/2) = (1/4)

  3. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    But in this problem the probability is different for drawing a blue ball because there are different numbers of blue and green balls.

  4. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    A 2/51 B 3/20 C 1/10 D 4/153

  5. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    i still do not understand

  6. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    How many total balls in Urn 1? 6 blue + 4 green = 10 How many are blue? 6 blue So, the chance of drawing a blue ball out of Urn 1 is: (# of blue balls) / (total # of balls) = 6 / 10

  7. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    Does that help? Now you can do the same thing for Urn 2... find # of blue balls / total balls in Urn 2

  8. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    but the answer isn't up there ^

  9. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    what did you get for Urn 2?

  10. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    1/4

  11. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    so do i multipy 6/10 and 1/4

  12. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    Sounds right to me. So the probability of 2 blues is (6/10) * (1/4) = (6 / 40)

  13. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    3/20

  14. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    right :) I didn't see it at first, but once you simplify the fraction, it's there :)

  15. kcla1996
    • 2 years ago
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    thanks for the help

  16. JakeV8
    • 2 years ago
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    Glad to help :)

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