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Two urns each contain green balls and blue balls. Urn I contains 4 green balls and 6 blue balls, and Urn II contains 6 green balls and 2 blue balls. A ball is drawn at random from each urn. What is the probability that both balls are blue?
 one year ago
 one year ago
Two urns each contain green balls and blue balls. Urn I contains 4 green balls and 6 blue balls, and Urn II contains 6 green balls and 2 blue balls. A ball is drawn at random from each urn. What is the probability that both balls are blue?
 one year ago
 one year ago

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JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
The probability of drawing a blue ball from each urn is the probability of drawing a blue ball from the Urn 1 multiplied by the probability of drawing a blue ball from Urn 2.
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
It is sort of like flipping 2 coins and asking for the chance of getting 2 heads. The chance of getting a head on Coin 1 is 1/2, and it's the same for Coin 2. The chance of getting heads on both coins is (1/2) * (1/2) = (1/4)
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
But in this problem the probability is different for drawing a blue ball because there are different numbers of blue and green balls.
 one year ago

kcla1996Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
A 2/51 B 3/20 C 1/10 D 4/153
 one year ago

kcla1996Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
i still do not understand
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
How many total balls in Urn 1? 6 blue + 4 green = 10 How many are blue? 6 blue So, the chance of drawing a blue ball out of Urn 1 is: (# of blue balls) / (total # of balls) = 6 / 10
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Does that help? Now you can do the same thing for Urn 2... find # of blue balls / total balls in Urn 2
 one year ago

kcla1996Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
but the answer isn't up there ^
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
what did you get for Urn 2?
 one year ago

kcla1996Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
so do i multipy 6/10 and 1/4
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Sounds right to me. So the probability of 2 blues is (6/10) * (1/4) = (6 / 40)
 one year ago

JakeV8Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
right :) I didn't see it at first, but once you simplify the fraction, it's there :)
 one year ago
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