anonymous
  • anonymous
y=d/dx integralcosx to 0 t/(1+t)dt
Mathematics
schrodinger
  • schrodinger
I got my questions answered at brainly.com in under 10 minutes. Go to brainly.com now for free help!
At vero eos et accusamus et iusto odio dignissimos ducimus qui blanditiis praesentium voluptatum deleniti atque corrupti quos dolores et quas molestias excepturi sint occaecati cupiditate non provident, similique sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollitia animi, id est laborum et dolorum fuga. Et harum quidem rerum facilis est et expedita distinctio. Nam libero tempore, cum soluta nobis est eligendi optio cumque nihil impedit quo minus id quod maxime placeat facere possimus, omnis voluptas assumenda est, omnis dolor repellendus. Itaque earum rerum hic tenetur a sapiente delectus, ut aut reiciendis voluptatibus maiores alias consequatur aut perferendis doloribus asperiores repellat.

Get this expert

answer on brainly

SEE EXPERT ANSWER

Get your free account and access expert answers to this
and thousands of other questions

anonymous
  • anonymous
\[d/dx \int\limits_{0}^{cosx} \frac{ t }{ 1+t } dt\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[\frac{cosx}{1+cosx}\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
how did u do it?

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.

More answers

anonymous
  • anonymous
@Outkast3r09 I think u made a miss take in your first step (While u made the integral)
anonymous
  • anonymous
the derivative of an integral is simply the integral itself with the variables in other words ... integrals and derivatives cancel eachother out
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[\frac{cosx}{1+cosx} \]is your answer
anonymous
  • anonymous
It should be\[\cos(x)-\ln(1+\cos(x))\]
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1349804491261:dw|
anonymous
  • anonymous
Now take the derivative
anonymous
  • anonymous
it shouldn't be anything @ zekarias
anonymous
  • anonymous
@zekarias ... you don't need to do anything
anonymous
  • anonymous
What u get finally?
anonymous
  • anonymous
so the answer is just cosx/1+cosx ?
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes
anonymous
  • anonymous
thanks,wolfram gives me the same answer,just wanted to make sure how it was done
anonymous
  • anonymous
it's just simply knowing how an integral work... there is a lot of work to do it zekarias way but if you just know that the the derivative on an integral will bring you back to the f(x) within the integral... that's all you need to know(This works anytime the lower limit is some real number) because if you think about it.... |dw:1349804918350:dw| if you take the derivative of f(n)... you'll always get zero
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh thanks alot sweedy :)

Looking for something else?

Not the answer you are looking for? Search for more explanations.