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anonymous
 4 years ago
y=d/dx integralcosx to 0 t/(1+t)dt
anonymous
 4 years ago
y=d/dx integralcosx to 0 t/(1+t)dt

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anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[d/dx \int\limits_{0}^{cosx} \frac{ t }{ 1+t } dt\]

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[\frac{cosx}{1+cosx}\]

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@Outkast3r09 I think u made a miss take in your first step (While u made the integral)

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0the derivative of an integral is simply the integral itself with the variables in other words ... integrals and derivatives cancel eachother out

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0\[\frac{cosx}{1+cosx} \]is your answer

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0It should be\[\cos(x)\ln(1+\cos(x))\]

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0dw:1349804491261:dw

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0Now take the derivative

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0it shouldn't be anything @ zekarias

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0@zekarias ... you don't need to do anything

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0so the answer is just cosx/1+cosx ?

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0thanks,wolfram gives me the same answer,just wanted to make sure how it was done

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0it's just simply knowing how an integral work... there is a lot of work to do it zekarias way but if you just know that the the derivative on an integral will bring you back to the f(x) within the integral... that's all you need to know(This works anytime the lower limit is some real number) because if you think about it.... dw:1349804918350:dw if you take the derivative of f(n)... you'll always get zero

anonymous
 4 years ago
Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0oh thanks alot sweedy :)
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