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helder_edwinBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
use the definition: the function is derivable at x=0 if \[ \large \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)f(0)}{x0}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)+1}{x} \]
 one year ago

helder_edwinBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
this limit has to exist. so u now turn to onesided limits.
 one year ago

nickymardenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Oh yeeah, thank you so much. After you use the rules you forget the definition.
 one year ago

satellite73Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
actually it is easier than that, although of course @helder_edwin is correct
 one year ago

satellite73Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
just take the derivative of each piece, and replace \(x\) by \(0\) if you get the same answer, then yes, if you get a different answer, then no
 one year ago

satellite73Best ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
you can pretty much do it with your eyeballs first one is 3 second one is \(10x+3\)and when you replace \(x\) by 0 in both you get 3
 one year ago

nickymardenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
haha thanks :) Not everyone can do it with their eyeballs ;)
 one year ago
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