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lgbasallote

  • 3 years ago

why is \(p \vee T \equiv T\)? can it be proven?

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  1. lgbasallote
    • 3 years ago
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    aside from stating "domination law" of course

  2. swissgirl
    • 3 years ago
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    not familiar with this cant help u :(

  3. lgbasallote
    • 3 years ago
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    i assume i do this... \[\huge \begin{array}{c|c|c|} \hline p &T &p \vee T\\ \hline\\T & T &T \\ F &T&T\end{array}\]

  4. lgbasallote
    • 3 years ago
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    Q.E.D

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