• theEric
Math proof help, please! Relations and subsets involved. I don't see the solution! My math book proved that if sets $A, B,C,D$ existed such that $A \subseteq C$and$B \subseteq D$ then $(A \times B) \subseteq (C \times D)$ I need to show that the converse of that is false. I think the converse is$(A \times B) \subseteq (C \times D)$implies$A \subseteq C$and$B \subseteq D$. But I can't understand how it is false for some group of sets $A,B,C,D$.
Mathematics

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