anonymous
  • anonymous
show that cot inverse (1) + cot inverse (2) + cot inverse (3) = pi/4 ?
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  • Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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SOLVED
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katieb
  • katieb
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anonymous
  • anonymous
I believe this is not actually true...
anonymous
  • anonymous
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%28inverse+cotangent+of+1%29+%2B+%28inverse+cotangent+of+2%29+%2B+%28inverse+cotangent+of+3%29
anonymous
  • anonymous
cotangent is the ratio of cosine to sine for an angle. Inverse cotangent means that for a specific ratio, the output will be the angle that has that ratio. \(cot^{-1}(1)\) will give us the angle for which cosine is equal to sine. This turns out to be pi/4 Add in \(cot^{-1}(2)\) and \(cot^{-1}(3)\) and clearly the angle won't be pi/4 anymore.

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anonymous
  • anonymous
arccot(x) = arctan(1/x) if x>0 so arctan(1) = arccot(1) = pi/4 the rest are positive so it cant be true arccot(2) = arctan(1/2) > 0 arccot(3) = arctan(1/3) > 0
anonymous
  • anonymous
yes looks like we wrote the same thing lol
anonymous
  • anonymous
Correct =)
anonymous
  • anonymous
This problem was almost certainly meant to say = pi/2

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