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The domain of the original function will be the range of the inverse.
I don't think there is ALWAYS a systematic way of computing the range; as opposed to always having a systematic way of computing the domain.
and the range of the original function would be the domain of the inverse?
Right, as well as all point (x,y) in the original become (y,x) in the inverse
this is getting confusing....
what is the range without looping words?
What do you mean, "without looping words"?
well you're using words that loop (and make it complicated)
domain of function is the range of the inverse and the range of the function is the domain of the inverse where (x,y) is (y,x) in inverse ^see how loop-y that is?
do you know a simple explanation @nincompoop ?
Sorry, simply put: the range of a function is all the values of the dependent variable for which the function is defined. Eg: y = x^2 The range is all the values for which the dependent variable (y) is defined, which is all values greater than zero. You will never get an output of a negative number from this function.
so....the range *is* the domain of the inverse function?
Yes, the range of the original function IS the domain of it's inverse.
please say yes or no before going into very confusing details
ahh a yes then
it was all i wanted to hear....
|dw:1350876020195:dw|See how the Domain and range simply switch. As you can see, the inverse of a function is reflected along y=x
....and there came the complicated explanations
just because i have a high level in smartscore doesn't mean i understand those things......i hate math, remember?
i'm not downloading it.....
you can delete
Do you lose smart score for deleting responses?
yes. yes you do
So that's how you got to 99!!