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## Hollywood_chrissy 2 years ago Is it possible to prove that a+sqrt(m)=b+sqrt(n) hence a=b and sqrt(m)=sqrt(n)

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1. henpen

$a-b=\sqrt{n}-\sqrt{m}$You are only considering the special case when both sides =0. Both sides could be 1, pi, 16, so in short, no.

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