anonymous
  • anonymous
explain why the equation cox=x has at least one solution.
Calculus1
schrodinger
  • schrodinger
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zepdrix
  • zepdrix
cox???
anonymous
  • anonymous
sorry,sorry. its cos x
zepdrix
  • zepdrix
oh lol ^^

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zepdrix
  • zepdrix
Hmm do you remember what the graph for cosine looks like?
anonymous
  • anonymous
somewhat
baldymcgee6
  • baldymcgee6
I'm pretty sure cos(x) = x only has one solution
baldymcgee6
  • baldymcgee6
http://screencast.com/t/sLkE6Ylvzpk
zepdrix
  • zepdrix
|dw:1351373928927:dw| This is kind of the idea rose :D At this particular point, the x value and the cosx value are the same.
anonymous
  • anonymous
|dw:1351373944681:dw|
zepdrix
  • zepdrix
So in your picture, x=pi/2 but cosx = 0 Hmm that point doesn't work so well :c
anonymous
  • anonymous
okay, i will consider the picture that you showed
zepdrix
  • zepdrix
Yah I can't think of the proper way to explain it :D It probably has something to do with the fact that cosine oscillates back and forth between 1 and -1, and since it is continuous it would have to have a solution :d i dunno... just think about it i guess :3 heh
baldymcgee6
  • baldymcgee6
Since the function y = x has a domain of all real numbers... as is cos(x), there must be a point of intersection somewhere
anonymous
  • anonymous
okay,
anonymous
  • anonymous
So which one should I consider now? i have two answers here
baldymcgee6
  • baldymcgee6
Combine them... you could say.. Since both y=x and the cosine function have a domain of all real numbers and both are continuous at least one point of intersection is definite.
anonymous
  • anonymous
oh okay, thank you so much guys
Zarkon
  • Zarkon
use the intermediate value theorem
anonymous
  • anonymous
roelin i think you did it right

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