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KingGeorge
Group Title
[EDIT: Now that I've managed to solve this on my own, this is now a (very difficult) challenge problem]
Evaluate \[\large \int_{\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(z)}{z^2+1} dz\]
 one year ago
 one year ago
KingGeorge Group Title
[EDIT: Now that I've managed to solve this on my own, this is now a (very difficult) challenge problem] Evaluate \[\large \int_{\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(z)}{z^2+1} dz\]
 one year ago
 one year ago

This Question is Closed

JasonDeRulo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I doubt that many people here (myself included) can help you with a problem of this level. You're better off posting this at some site like this: http://www.physicsforums.com where many of the members have Ph.Ds in physics, math, etc...
 one year ago

cruffo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Did you use symmetry :)
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
Not at all. At least, not in any obvious way that I can see.
 one year ago

cruffo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Since it's an even function, you could just double the integral from 0 to infinity.
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
You could. But I don't know how to integrate it from 0 to infinity before finding the integral from infinity to infinity. The way I know how to do this only really works from infinity to infinity.
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
\[\int\limits_{ \infty}^{\infty}\frac{ e^{ix} }{ x^2+ 1}\] i hope you can do it now, by using integration by parts ,this is what i can think of so far , its been ages since i have done this :(
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
This is the method that I used. Anyone can feel welcome to describe why we can substitute \[\cos(z)=e^{ix}.\]
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
\[\cos z = e^{iz}\]
 one year ago

LogicalApple Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Why does cos z = e^(iz) ?
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
\[e^{iz}=\cos(z)+i\sin(x)\neq \cos(z)\]
 one year ago

wio Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Ooops, nevermind that's an inverse trig function... it's gonna make life harder.
 one year ago

LogicalApple Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
So you made the substitution cos z = e ^(ix) hm..
 one year ago

wio Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Since one is an odd function, the result is 0?
 one year ago

wio Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
@KingGeorge \(\sin(x)\) is odd so \[ \int_{a}^a i\sin(x)dx = 0 \]??
 one year ago

wio Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
hmm, but there is something in the denominator so I guess a little more thought needs to be put into it.
 one year ago

cruffo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
BTW isn't \(\large \cos(z) = \frac{e^{iz} + e^{iz}}{2}\)
 one year ago

cruffo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
Then, if you want to factor the denominator z^2+1 = (z+i)(zi)
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
@cruffo yes. Also, the substitution made by ghazi is valid. I'm just waiting on a good explanation of why it's valid.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
To me, it looks like what you are doing is changing the real integral into a complex one. Your taking an integral defined on the real line, and changing it to one defined on the complex plane. In the solution, did you have a path for the complex integral?
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
Half circle sitting on the real axis. Then let the diameter go to infinity.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
ah ok, so you claim that:\[\int\limits_{r}^{r}\frac{\cos(z)}{z^2+1}dz=\int\limits_{C}\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+1}dz\]where C is the half circle or radius r sitting on the x axis
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
note the integral on the left is a real integral, while the one on the right a complex one.
 one year ago

cruffo Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
which is why you don't use the imaginary part of e^iz. Got it.
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
Almost. There is one more integral needed on the right.I claim that\[\int\limits_{r}^{r}\frac{\cos(z)}{z^2+1}dz=\int\limits_{C}\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+1}dz\int\limits_{\gamma}\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+1}{dz}\]where \(\gamma\) is the upper part of the semicircle.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
my guess is that the upper part of the semi circle tends to 0 as r goes to infinity.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
er, i mean the value of the integral on the upper part of the semi circle.
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
However, when we work it out, that extra integral does go to 0 as the radius increases. But that's still something that needs to be shown.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
interesting!
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
and the part on the real line matches perfectly with the original integral since:\[real(e^{iz})=\cos (z)\]
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
you can consider that as a corollary of Liouville theorem that says if \[fe^g\] has an elementary antiderivative, where f and g are rational functions provided that "g" is not constant, then it has an antiderivative of the form \[he^g\] , h is a rational function. For this to be an antiderivative of \[fe^g\], we need this condition to be satisfied h′+hg′=f. Now lets say , \[f= \frac{ 1 }{ 1+z^2 }\]and g=iz, the condition is h′+ih=\[\frac{ 1 }{ 1+z^2 }\]. The right side has a pole of order 1 at z=i. In order for the left side to have a pole there, h must have a pole there, but wherever h has a pole of order k, h′ has a pole of order k+1, so the left side can never have a pole of order 1. @KingGeorge hope this complex answer helps you lol i cant go further , i have forgotten most of it :( :(
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
try to figure this out, i'll be back :) hope this helps you
 one year ago

LogicalApple Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I dont think my associate's degree has prepared me for this o_O I wish I could give best responses to multiple people.
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
Liouville's theorem is actually not needed to finish the problem. That being said, you still need to know how to work out Laurent series, and know how to find values of integrals using these.
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
this is what is an explanation of the substitution made for cos z , another alternate is to use expansion of cos z ,ignore for higher order
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
my complex variables class was pretty lackluster =/ so im auditing the course next semester with a better professor.
 one year ago

LogicalApple Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
For real? (bad pun)
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
My professor wasn't the greatest either. As long as we came to class and made some sort of attempt on the homework it was an A. If anyone an finish it, feel free. If no one does, I'll post up a solution sometime in the (hopefully) near future.
 one year ago

joemath314159 Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
i learned what i needed for the Subject GRE and called it a day lol. Hopefully next semester i'll gain a better understanding.
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
by the way answer is around pi cos z ?? is it?
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
The solution is \(\pi/e\). However, finding this is not too easy.
 one year ago

LogicalApple Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
What an interesting solution..
 one year ago

KingGeorge Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
^^ my thoughts exactly. Before I knew about the substitution for \(e^{iz}\), I was stunned when I saw \(e\) in the solution.
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
hmm , alright, it'll be done in a while or may be morrow
 one year ago

AccessDenied Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
I saw something similar to this in a document about Differentiation under the Integral by Keith Conrad. > http://www.math.uconn.edu/~kconrad/blurbs/analysis/diffunderint.pdf page 13, on 11. \( \displaystyle \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{\cos(xt)}{1+x^2} \; \text{d}x \) This integral involves an extra variable, t. He is able to figure out the answer with some change of variables and differentiation under the integral work. This problem was really interesting, using a lot of different techniques. (: With the solution, we may let t=1 to match this integral here.
 one year ago

mukushla Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.2
going with jordan's lemma\[ \int_{\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos x}{1+x^2} \; \text{d}x=\text{Re} \left( \int_{\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{ix}}{1+x^2} \; \text{d}x \right)=2 \pi i \frac{e^{1}}{2i}=\frac{\pi}{e}\]
 one year ago

ghazi Group TitleBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
this is what i was expecting when i saw @mukushla here, nice :)
 one year ago
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