## anonymous 3 years ago Help!!!!!

1. anonymous

2. anonymous

what dont you understand?

3. anonymous

$(32(x+5))^{\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }}=4$

4. anonymous

First lets get rid of the 1/4 power. What can we do to both sides to do this

5. anonymous

plug in x

6. anonymous

thanks

7. anonymous

Hint: to get rid of ^2 we would take the square root

8. anonymous

$32(x+5)=4^{4}$Next we distribute 32 to each term inside the ( ). Are you good from here?

9. anonymous

Ya I think so thanks

10. anonymous

i actually would divide by 32 instead of distributing, allows us to skip steps later... You're Welcome