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Is this true: 'The only way you can get from one perfect square, q^2, to another, p^2, by multiplying by a constant [i.e. p^2=a^2 q^2] is if q IS that factor [i.e. q^2=a^2]'?
 one year ago
 one year ago
Is this true: 'The only way you can get from one perfect square, q^2, to another, p^2, by multiplying by a constant [i.e. p^2=a^2 q^2] is if q IS that factor [i.e. q^2=a^2]'?
 one year ago
 one year ago

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hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
'the first square IS that factor' what is 'that' here? factor of whose ? \(b^2=ma^2\)
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
\[q^2=49p^2\]Must \[q=49\]?
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
I've edited it. Is that still ambiguous?
 one year ago

hartnnBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
then i don't think its always true.... q equal 49, is not necessary
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Of course apart from the trivial case where p=1
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
Counterexample: 6^2= 4 * 2^2 Damn, it's wrong!
 one year ago

henpenBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
This popped up in http://www.komal.hu/verseny/feladat.cgi?a=honap&h=201210&t=mat&l=en if anyone's interested...
 one year ago
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