anonymous
  • anonymous
Is this true: 'The only way you can get from one perfect square, q^2, to another, p^2, by multiplying by a constant [i.e. p^2=a^2 q^2] is if q IS that factor [i.e. q^2=a^2]'?
Mathematics
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anonymous
  • anonymous
Is this true: 'The only way you can get from one perfect square, q^2, to another, p^2, by multiplying by a constant [i.e. p^2=a^2 q^2] is if q IS that factor [i.e. q^2=a^2]'?
Mathematics
katieb
  • katieb
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hartnn
  • hartnn
'the first square IS that factor' what is 'that' here? factor of whose ? \(b^2=ma^2\)
anonymous
  • anonymous
\[q^2=49p^2\]Must \[q=49\]?
anonymous
  • anonymous
I've edited it. Is that still ambiguous?

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hartnn
  • hartnn
then i don't think its always true.... q equal 49, is not necessary
anonymous
  • anonymous
Of course apart from the trivial case where p=1
anonymous
  • anonymous
Counterexample: 6^2= 4 * 2^2 Damn, it's wrong!
hartnn
  • hartnn
yea, its false....
anonymous
  • anonymous
This popped up in http://www.komal.hu/verseny/feladat.cgi?a=honap&h=201210&t=mat&l=en if anyone's interested...

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