• anonymous
This question refers to lecture 6 of the Single Variable Calculus course, where Dr. Jerison is showing how to calculate d/dx a^x. (18-01sc-single-variable-calculus-fall-2010 Session 17: The Exponential Function, its Derivative, and its Inverse) Isn't there an error at 18:12 of the lecture? The equation d/dx f(kx) = k f'(kx) mixes Newton's and Leibnitz's notation, but, using Newton's, the equation is f'(kx) = k f'(kx). It seems this could only be correct for k=1 (or f'(kx) = 0). But k is "any number", not just 1; and f'(kx) = 2^(kx) ln(kx), so f'(kx) could only be 0 if kx = 1. Well, that rules out k being "any number - it has to be the reciprocal of x - and it couldn't be 0. Any help explaining this apparent difficulty with the proof would be appreciated. Thanks.
OCW Scholar - Single Variable Calculus
• Stacey Warren - Expert brainly.com
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