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Rachel123

  • 3 years ago

Prove n^(1/n)>=1 for n=1,2.....?

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  1. TuringTest
    • 3 years ago
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    induction?

  2. Rachel123
    • 3 years ago
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    I was thinking that, but then I wasn't sure how to do the inductive part? So if you assume true for n=k, then you have k^(1/k+1)>1 But then how do you use it in the case for n=k+1?

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