Here's the question you clicked on:
Jonask
show by induction that
assuming k! < k^k .....(1) we have to prove (k+1)! < (k+1)^(k+1) (k+1)(k!) <(k + 1)^k * (k+1) since k+1 >0 we see k! < (k+1)^k ...(2) binomial expansion will show RHS = k^k + something positive from (1) , we easily see (2) is true..
hope you didnt mind i missed the initial step of induction..
no i dont mind cos i had already done that ,it is great