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shubhamsrgBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
assuming k! < k^k .....(1) we have to prove (k+1)! < (k+1)^(k+1) (k+1)(k!) <(k + 1)^k * (k+1) since k+1 >0 we see k! < (k+1)^k ...(2) binomial expansion will show RHS = k^k + something positive from (1) , we easily see (2) is true..
 one year ago

shubhamsrgBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.1
hope you didnt mind i missed the initial step of induction..
 one year ago

JonaskBest ResponseYou've already chosen the best response.0
no i dont mind cos i had already done that ,it is great
 one year ago
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