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henpen

  • 3 years ago

\[\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^bf(x)dt=\int_a^b\frac{df(x)}{dx}dt\] Why is the equality correct?

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  1. henpen
    • 3 years ago
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    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiation_under_the_integral_sign It's to do with this, but the article didn't help me much

  2. phi
    • 3 years ago
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    did you look at this http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule#Proof_of_basic_form

  3. henpen
    • 3 years ago
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    That's it. Thanks

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